Al's CCNA Practice Test #1

Revised June 27, 2018

(If you find any errors, let me know!)

1. Which sequence of commands will create a VLAN named "Anarchy" with a number of 333?

  1. Router>vlan 333
    Router>name Anarchy
  2. Router#vlan Anarchy
    Router#number 333
  3. Router(config)#vlan Anarchy
    Router(config-vlan)#number 333
  4. Router(config-if)#vlan 333
    Router(config-vlan)#name Anarchy

2. What is the purpose of "split-horizon"?

  1. To prevent routing loops.
  2. To ensure route propagation.
  3. To conserve RAM.
  4. To maximize the routing metric.

3. What is the default administrative distance for a static route?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 90
  4. 110
  5. 120

4. A named IP ACL can be:

  1. Only standard.
  2. Only extended
  3. Either standard or extended.
  4. Both standard and extended simultaneously.
  5. Neither standard nor extended.

5. Which of the following transition methods can be used for an IPv4-to-IPv6 migration?

  1. Redistribution
  2. Manual tunnels
  3. NAT
  4. Dual Stack
  5. Automatic tunnels

6. With regard to routing protocols, what is meant by "convergence"?

  1. All routing tables are equal.
  2. All routing tables are consistent and correct.
  3. Voice and data are traveling over the same media.
  4. The access point and the client have agreed on an SSID.
  5. All is right with the world.

7. Which command must be entered prior to configuring IPv6 routing protocols?

  1. ipv6 address
  2. ipv6 router
  3. ipv6 neighbor
  4. ipv6 unicast-routing

8. What is the "split horizon" rule?

  1. If a neighbor advertises a higher-metric path to a destination, add it to the routing table.
  2. Never advertise a route learned on one interface on any other interfaces.
  3. It's never useful to advertise routing information back out the same interface on which it was received.
  4. Don't date outside your social strata.

9. Which of the following might likely occur on a distribution-layer device?

  1. End-user connection.
  2. Broadcast forwarding.
  3. Advertisement of Administrative Distances.
  4. Packet filtering.

10. Which of the following are legal ACL wildcard masks?

  6. All of the above.

11. Which sequence of commands will assign FastEthernet0/4, FastEthernet0/5 and FastEthernet0/6 to VLAN 23?

  1. Router(config)#int fast0/4 - 6 vlan 23
  2. Router(config)#int fast0/4 - 6
    Router(config-if)#switchport access vlan 23
  3. Router(config)#int fast0/4
    Router(config-if)#int fast0/5
    Router(config-if)#int fast0/6
    Router(config-if)#switchport access vlan 23
  4. Router(config)#int range fast0/4 - 6
    Router(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 23

12. What is the purpose of "Administrative Distance"?

  1. To rank the trustworthiness of routed protocols.
  2. To rank the trustworthiness of routing protocols.
  3. To rank routers from competing vendors.
  4. To choose the best path from amongst different prefixes.

13. Which of the following will display the native VLAN of an IEEE 802.1Q trunk port?

  1. show interface fast0/1 switchport
  2. show interface fast0/1 trunk
  3. show interface fast0/1 vlan
  4. show interface fast0/1 native

14. Which of the following is true of both RIP and EIGRP?

  1. The metric is hop count.
  2. They are link-state routing protocols.
  3. They use triggered updates.
  4. The Administrative Distance is 90.

15. Which of the following ACL types are available on Cisco routers?

  1. Time-based
  2. Reflexive
  3. Automatic
  4. Dynamic

16. What is the purpose of a "hold down" timer?

  1. To slow convergence so that packets are not routed too quickly.
  2. To reduce the chance of a routing loop occurring.
  3. To increase the speed of convergence.
  4. To reduce the bandwidth used by routing updates.
  5. To give Dijkstra's algorithm time to reach equilibrium.

17. What is a "CIR"?

  1. "Currency In Reserve", also known as a "Rainy-Day Fund", part of a company's strategic business objectives.
  2. "Chromatic Internal Reflection", a measurement of the efficiency of single-mode fiber optic cables.
  3. "Committed Information Rate", the guaranteed minimum data rate for a Frame Relay PVC.
  4. "Cisco *IS* Routing!", the latest marking slogan from you-know-who.

18. Which of the following command sequences configures plaintext OSPF authentication on Serial1/0?

  1. Router(config)#router ospf 1
    Router(config-router)#authentication plaintext Serial1/0 CatSpace!
  2. Router(config)#interface serial1/0
    Router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication-key CatSpace! Router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication
  3. Router(config)#interface serial1/0
    Router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication-key CatSpace! Router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
  4. OSPF does not support plaintext authentication on serial interfaces.

19. Which of the following are types of VPNs?

  1. Remote-Access
  2. Ad-hoc
  3. Penultimate hop
  4. Site-to-Site

20. What would be the effect of the command "access-list 62 permit"?

  1. It discards packets sent by any host on the subnet.
  2. It permits packets to be received by any host on the subnet.
  3. It permits packets generated by any host on the subnet.
  4. Since the bits are flipped in the mask, the syntax is illegal.

21. Using different subnet masks within the same classful network is:

  1. FLSM
  2. VLSM
  3. ADSL
  4. Not allowed per RFC 1878.

22. When the NAT table is manually-constructed it is referred to as _____________ NAT.

  1. Dynamic
  2. PAT
  3. Static
  4. Redundant
  5. Transparent

23. Which of the following are classful routing protocols?

  1. EIGRP
  2. OSPF
  3. RIPv1
  4. RIPv2

24. What is the purpose of the OSPF router ID?

  1. To uniquely identify the OSPF process in memory.
  2. To uniquely identify the router in the OSPF LSDB.
  3. To uniquely identify the OSPF autonomous system boundary router (ASBR) on the Internet.
  4. To uniquely identify our sun in the galaxy.

25. Which command displays which dynamic IP routing protocols are operating on a router?

  1. show protocols
  2. show ip protocols
  3. show ip routing protocols
  4. show version

26. Which of the following are common names for "many-to-one" NAT?

  1. Multi-NAT
  2. PAT
  3. Overloading
  4. Server Load Balancing (SLB)
  5. This is a trick question. Due to performance limitations, NAT can't do a "many-to-one" translation.

27. What's the official EIGRP term for a valid backup next-hop router?

  1. Successor
  2. Feasible Successor
  3. Predecessor
  4. Infeasible Successor
  5. Feasible Predecessor

28. When running EIGRP, where can route summarization be configured?

  1. Only on ABRs.
  2. Only on ASBRs.
  3. On any router, on any interface.
  4. Only on routers with sufficient RAM to hold the entire topology.

29. What is the purpose of Etherchannel?

  1. To enable STP.
  2. To disable the Spanning-Tree Protocol.
  3. To combine several access lines into one trunk line.
  4. To bond several physical links into one logical link.

30. The command "debug ip nat" was executed, and "NAT*: s=>, d= [6827]" was observed. What is the significance of the value in square brackets?

  1. It is the packet identification number in the IP header.
  2. It is the protocol number in the IP header.
  3. It is the type code in the frame header.
  4. It is the sender's TCP port number
  5. The router performing NAT appends this value as a checksum to guarantee data integrity.

31. Which command configures a router with an IP static default route pointing to a next-hop address of

  1. ip route static
  2. ip route
  3. ip route static default
  4. ip route

32. What command enables EIGRP to be used with discontiguous networks?

  1. no passive-interface default
  2. no ip eigrp split-horizon
  3. no auto-summary
  4. discontiguous-networks

33. What is the default BPDU advertisement interval?

  1. 1 second
  2. 2 seconds
  3. 5 seconds
  4. 10 seconds
  5. 30 seconds

34. Router A has three possible next hops (Routers B, C and D) to destination X. If the advertised distances via Routers B, C and D are 1400, 1250 and 2000, respectively, and the feasible distances via B, C and D are 1800, 1500 and 2500 respectively, which, if any, of the following are true?

  1. B is a feasible successor, C is the successor.
  2. B is the successor, D is a feasible successor.
  3. C is a feasible successor, B is the successor.
  4. C is the successor, B is a feasible successor.
  5. D is a feasible successor, B is the successor.
  6. D is the successor, C is a feasible successor.
  7. None of the above are true.

35. What is the default variance for EIGRP?

  1. 0.5
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 5
  5. 16

36. Under the 2002 revision of the IEEE 802.1D specification, what is the port cost of a Fast Ethernet link?

  1. 1
  2. 10
  3. 19
  4. 100
  5. 128

37. What is meant by a "discontiguous network"?

  1. A network that has more than one subnet.
  2. A network that is using VLSM.
  3. A network that has its subnets separated by pieces of one or more other networks.
  4. A subnet that appears in more than one place within the topology.

38. On the router with hostname "NAT1", which of the following commands would disable NAT debugging?

  1. NAT1>no debug ip nat
  2. NAT1>undebug ip nat
  3. NAT1>no debug all
  4. NAT1>undebug all
  5. All of the above.
  6. None of the above.

39. With regard to STP, what is the default mode of operation of a Cisco switch?

  1. Common STP
  2. PVST
  3. PVRST
  4. MST
  5. It depends on the switch.

40. How does an OSPF inter-area route appear in a routing table?

  1. o (lower-case "o")
  2. O (upper-case "O")
  3. O IA
  4. O E1
  5. O E2
  6. Oh, my!

41. On which of the following must two routers agree to be EIGRP neighbors?

  1. BGP Autonomous System number
  2. K-values
  3. EIGRP AS number
  4. Routers on a common subnet
  5. Hello interval

42. When using the "router-on-a-stick" approach, how are the multiple default gateway addresses configured?

  1. Using secondary addresses.
  2. Using subinterfaces.
  3. Using loopbacks.
  4. Cisco routers do not support this method.

43. Which of the following are the ranges for numbered standard IP ACLs?

  1. 1-99
  2. 100-199
  3. 800-899
  4. 1000-1099
  5. 1300-1999
  6. 2000-2699

44. What action occurs by default at the bottom of all access lists?

  1. Explicit "deny any"
  2. Explicit “permit any"
  3. Implicit "deny any"
  4. Explicit "permit any"

45. Which of the following are classless IPv4 IGP's?

  1. RIPv1
  2. RIPv2
  3. RIPng
  4. OSPF
  5. MP-BGP
  6. EIGRP
  7. IS-IS

46. What is the meaning of "DLCI"?

  1. Discardable Lost Cell Indicator
  2. Data-Link Connection Identifier
  3. Don't Like Cisco's Ideology
  4. It may once have had a meaning, but nobody remembers what it was.

47. Which of the following is an example of correct extended IP ACL syntax?

  1. access-list 115 deny tcp any gt 30000
  2. access-list 605 permit
  3. access-list 101 permit host host eq telnet
  4. access-list 99 deny host

48. On a modern network, what would typically fulfill the role of an "access" device?

  1. A router
  2. A layer-two switch
  3. A layer-three switch
  4. A firewall

49. Which of the following do PAP and CHAP have in common?

  1. They both permit only fixed-length frames.
  2. Neither uses the MD5 algorithm.
  3. They are both authentication protocols used with PPP.
  4. Neither works on synchronous communication channels.

50. Which of the following command sequences correctly places IP ACL 25 inbound on a subinterface?

  1. Router(config)#interface atm0/1.100
    Router(config-subif)#ip access-class 25 in
  2. Router(config)#interface atm0/1.100
    Router(config-subif)#ip access-group 25 in
  3. Router(config)#interface atm0/1.100
    Router(config-subif)#ip access-list 25 in
  4. Router(config)#interface atm0/1.100 25 in


 1. D       11. D       21. B       31. B       41. BCD
 2. A       12. B       22. C       32. C       42. B
 3. B       13. AB      23. C       33. B       43. AE
 4. C       14. C       24. B       34. D       44. C
 5. BCDE    15. ABD     25. B       35. B       45. BDFG
 6. B       16. B       26. BC      36. C       46. B
 7. D       17. C       27. B       37. C       47. A
 8. C       18. B       28. C       38. F       48. B
 9. D       19. AD      29. D       39. B       49. C
10. F       20. C       30. A       40. C       50. B

3. The default is 1, but you can set it to anything from 0 to 255 (lower is better).
6. With regard to applications, "convergence" means voice, video and data combined on one infrastructure.
10. Any 32-bit mask is legal with IP ACLs (useful is another question).
23. Classful protocols do not advertise the subnet mask in their routing updates.
29. The various Etherchannels are sometimes referred to by the data rate ("Fast Etherchannel", "Gig Etherchannel", "10 Gig Etherchannel").
32. By default EIGRP (and RIPv2) summarize at classful network boundaries.
34. The successor is the best next hop (lowest feasible distance), and the feasible successor is a valid back up path (to the ensure a loop-free path, advertised distance of the candidate feasible successor must be less than the current feasible distance).
36. Because Gig and 10 Gig Ethernet both had a port cost of "1" under the old spec, IEEE 802.1D was revised when 10 Gig Ethernet was introduced.
37. Discontiguous networks and automatic route summarization don't play well together. Beware!
45. RIPv1 is classful, RIPng is for IPv6 and MP-BGP is an EGP.
46. The DLCI is the Layer-2 address used by Frame Relay switches to identify the PVC.
47. 605 is an Appletalk ACL number, ACL 101 is missing the protocol specifier ("tcp") between keywords "permit" and "host", and ACL 99 is a standard IP ACL.

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